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CAT 2021 Slot 2 Question Paper with Solutions

CAT 2021 Slot 2 Question Paper with Solutions

 

 VARC

 

The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

 Many people believe that truth conveys power. Hence sticking with the truth is the best strategy for gaining power. Unfortunately, this is just a comforting myth. In fact, truth and power have a far more complicated relationship, because in human society, power means two very different things.

On the one hand, power means having the ability to manipulate objective realities: to hunt animals, to construct bridges, to cure diseases, to build atom bombs. This kind of power is closely tied to truth. If you believe a false physical theory, you won’t be able to build an atom bomb. On the other hand, power also means having the ability to manipulate human beliefs, thereby getting lots of people to cooperate effectively. Building atom bombs requires not just a good understanding of physics, but also the coordinated labor of millions of humans. Planet Earth was conquered by Homo sapiens rather than by chimpanzees or elephants, because we are the only mammals that can cooperate in very large numbers. And large-scale cooperation depends on believing common stories. But these stories need not be true. You can unite millions of people by making them believe in completely fictional stories about God, about race or about economics. The dual nature of power and truth results in the curious fact that we humans know many more truths than any other animal, but we also believe in much more nonsense.

When it comes to uniting people around a common story, fiction actually enjoys three inherent advantages over the truth. First, whereas the truth is universal, fictions tend to be local. Consequently, if we want to distinguish our tribe from foreigners, a fictional story will serve as a far better identity marker than a true story. The second huge advantage of fiction over truth has to do with the handicap principle, which says that reliable signals must be costly to the signaler. Otherwise, they can easily be faked by cheaters. If political loyalty is signaled by believing a true story, anyone can fake it. But believing ridiculous and outlandish stories exacts greater cost, and is therefore a better signal of loyalty. Third, and most important, the truth is often painful and disturbing. Hence if you stick to unalloyed reality, few people will follow you. An American presidential candidate who tells the American public the truth, the whole truth and nothing but the truth about American history has a 100 percent guarantee of losing the elections. An uncompromising adherence to the truth is an admirable spiritual practice, but it is not a winning political strategy.

Even if we need to pay some price for deactivating our rational faculties, the advantages of increased social cohesion are often so big that fictional stories routinely triumph over the truth in human history. Scholars have known this for thousands of years, which is why scholars often had to decide whether they served the truth or social harmony. Should they aim to unite people by making sure everyone believes in the same fiction, or should they let people know the truth even at the price of disunity?

 

 

Q1. The author implies that, like scholars, successful leaders:

  1. today know how to create social cohesion better than in the       past
  2. know how to balance truth and social
  3. use myths to attain the first type of
  4. need to leverage both types of power to remain in office.

Sol: Option A is eliminated as scholars of the present and past haven’t been compared.

In the last paragraph, it is said that scholars had to decide between the two – truth or fiction. It’s not said that they chose fiction over truth always. Hence, C is eliminated.

”to stay in power” in D is far-fetched. Hence, B is correct.

Q2. Regarding which one of the following quotes could we argue that the author overemphasizes the importance of fiction?

  1. “On the one hand, power means having the ability to manipulate objective realities: to hunt animals, to construct bridges, to cure diseases, to build atom ”
  2. “In fact, truth and power have a far more complicated relationship, because in human society, power means two very different “
  3. “Hence sticking with the truth is the best strategy for gaining power. Unfortunately, this is just a comforting ”
  4. “. . . scholars often had to decide whether they served the truth or social harmony. Should they aim to unite people by making sure everyone believes in the same fiction, or should they let people know the truth . . .?”

 

Sol: “Should they aim to unite people by making sure everyone believes in the same fiction, or should they let people know the truth even at the price of disunity?”

This is the best option as here the author equates fiction with unity and truth with disunity, hence emphasising the importance of fiction.

Q3. The author would support none of the following statements about political power EXCEPT that:

  1. there are definite advantages to promoting fiction, but there needs to be some limit to a pervasive belief in
  2. while unalloyed truth is not recommended, leaders should stay as close as possible to
  3. manipulating people’s beliefs is politically advantageous, but a leader who propagates only myths is likely to lose
  4. people cannot handle the unvarnished truth, so leaders retain power by deviating from

Sol: The author says that – ‘An uncompromising adherence to the truth is an admirable spiritual practice, but it is not a winning political strategy’. In other words, leaders retain power by not sticking to the unvarnished truth, but by deviating from it.

Hence, D is correct.

Q4. The central theme of the passage is about the choice between:

  1. stories that unite people and those that distinguish groups from each
  2. attaining social cohesion and propagating objective
  3. leaders who unknowingly spread fictions and those who intentionally do
  4. truth and power

Sol: The author mentions that ‘Even if we need to pay some price for deactivating our rational faculties, the advantages of increased social cohesion are often so big that fictional stories routinely triumph over the truth in human history’. Option B is the best fit.

 

The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

 It’s easy to forget that most of the world’s languages are still transmitted orally with no widely established written form. While speech communities are increasingly involved in projects to protect their languages – in print, on air and online – orality is fragile and contributes to linguistic vulnerability. But indigenous languages are about much more than unusual words and intriguing grammar: They function as vehicles for the transmission of cultural traditions, environmental understandings and knowledge about medicinal plants, all at risk when elders die and livelihoods are disrupted.

Both push and pull factors lead to the decline of languages. Through war, famine and natural disasters, whole communities can be destroyed, taking their language with them to the grave, such as the indigenous populations of Tasmania who were wiped out by colonists. More commonly, speakers live on but abandon their language in favor of another vernacular, a widespread process that linguists refer to as “language shift” from which few languages are immune. Such trading up and out of a speech form occurs for complex political, cultural and economic reasons – sometimes voluntary for economic and educational reasons, although often amplified by state coercion or neglect. Welsh, long stigmatized and disparaged by the British state, has rebounded with vigor.

Many speakers of endangered, poorly documented languages have embraced new digital media with excitement. Speakers of previously exclusively oral tongues are turning to the web as a virtual space for languages to live on. Internet technology offers powerful ways for oral traditions and cultural practices to survive, even thrive, among increasingly mobile communities. I have watched as videos of traditional wedding ceremonies and songs are recorded on smartphones in London by Nepali migrants, then uploaded to YouTube and watched an hour later by relatives in remote Himalayan villages.

Globalization is regularly, and often uncritically, pilloried as a major threat to linguistic diversity. But in fact, globalization is as much process as it is ideology, certainly when it comes to language. The real forces behind cultural homogenization are unbending beliefs, exchanged through a globalized delivery system, reinforced by the historical monolingualism prevalent in much of the West.

Monolingualism – the condition of being able to speak only one language – is regularly accompanied by a deep-seated conviction in the value of that language over all others. Across the largest economies that make up the G8, being monolingual is still often the norm, with multilingualism appearing unusual and even somewhat exotic. The monolingual mindset stands in sharp contrast to the lived reality of most the world, which throughout its history has been more multilingual than unilingual. Monolingualism, then, not globalization, should be our primary concern.

Multilingualism can help us live in a more connected and more interdependent world. By widening access to technology, globalization can support indigenous and scholarly communities engaged in documenting and protecting our shared linguistic heritage. For the last 5,000 years, the rise and fall of languages was intimately tied to the plow, sword and book. In our digital age, the keyboard, screen and web will play a decisive role in shaping the future linguistic diversity of our species.

Q5. From the passage, we can infer that the author is in favour of:

  1. an expanded state role in the preservation of languages.
  2. cultural
  3. greater
  4. “language shifts” across

Sol: The last line of the penultimate paragraph says that monolingualism should be out primary concern. He further goes on to list out the benefits of multilingualism. Hence, he is in its favour.

Q6. The author mentions the Welsh language to show that:

  1. while often pilloried, globalisation can, in fact, support linguistic
  2. vulnerable languages can rebound with state
  3. languages can revive even after their speakers have gone through a “language shift”.
  4. efforts to integrate Welsh speakers in the English-speaking fold have been fruitless

Sol: More commonly, speakers live on but abandon their language in favor of another vernacular, a widespread process that linguists refer to as “language shift” from which few languages are immune. Such trading up and out of a speech form occurs for complex political, cultural and economic reasons– sometimes voluntary for economic and educational reasons, although often amplified by state coercion or neglect. Welsh, long stigmatized and disparaged by the British state, has rebounded with vigor.

Globalisation hasn’t been talked about in this context.

Option B is totally opposite. The British stigmatised and disparaged Welsh.

Since there has been a rebound, option C is better than D because efforts initially must have been fruitful. Only then there can be a rebound.

Hence, C is correct.

Q7. We can infer all of the following about indigenous languages from the passage EXCEPT that:

  1. they are repositories of traditional knowledge about the environment and culture
  2. people are increasingly working on documenting these
  3. they are in danger of being wiped out as most can only be transmitted orally
  4. their vocabulary and grammatical constructs have been challenging to

Sol: Although the passage states that indigenous languages have ‘unusual words and intriguing grammar’, it does not say that this makes these languages challenging to document. Hence, option D cannot be inferred from the passage.

The other options can be inferred. In the first paragraph, the passage states that indigenous languages ‘function as vehicles for the transmission of cultural traditions, environmental understandings and knowledge about medicinal plants’, that ‘speech communities are increasingly involved in projects to protect their languages – in print, on air and online’ and that ‘most of the world’s languages are still transmitted orally with no widely established written form’.

Q8. The author lists all of the following as reasons for the decline or disappearance of a language EXCEPT:

  1. governments promoting certain languages over
  2. the focus on only a few languages as a result of widespread internet
  3. a catastrophic event that entirely eliminates a people and their
  4. people shifting away from their own language to study or work in another language.

Sol: Read the 2nd paragraph. Nowhere has the internet been attribute for the decline of languages whereas options A, C, D are pointed at.

Hence, B is the answer.

The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

 

It has been said that knowledge, or the problem of knowledge, is the scandal of philosophy. The scandal is philosophy’s apparent inability to show how, when and why we can be sure that we know something or, indeed, that we know anything. Philosopher Michael Williams writes: ‘Is it possible to obtain knowledge at all? This problem is pressing because there are powerful arguments, some very ancient, for the conclusion that it is not. Scepticism is the skeleton in Western rationalism’s closet’.

While it is not clear that the scandal matters to anyone but philosophers, philosophers point out that it should matter to everyone, at least given a certain conception of knowledge. For, they explain, unless we can ground our claims to knowledge as such, which is to say, distinguish it from mere opinion, superstition, fantasy, wishful thinking, ideology, illusion or delusion, then the actions we take on the basis of presumed knowledge – boarding an airplane, swallowing a pill, finding someone guilty of a crime – will be irrational and unjustifiable.

That is all quite serious-sounding but so also are the rattlings of the skeleton: that is, the sceptic’s contention that we cannot be sure that we know anything – at least not if we think of knowledge as something like having a correct mental representation of reality, and not if we think of reality as something like things-as-they-are-in-themselves, independent of our perceptions, ideas or descriptions. For, the sceptic will note, since reality, under that conception of it, is outside our ken (we cannot catch a glimpse of things-in-themselves around the corner of our own eyes; we cannot form an idea of reality that floats above the processes of our conceiving it), we have no way to compare our mental representations with things-as they-are-in-themselves and therefore no way to determine whether they are correct or incorrect. Thus, the sceptic may repeat (rattling loudly), you cannot be sure you ‘know’ something or anything at all – at least not, he may add (rattling softly before disappearing), if that is the way you conceive ‘knowledge’.

There are a number of ways to handle this situation. The most common is to ignore it. Most people outside the academy – and, indeed, most of us inside it – are unaware of or unperturbed by the philosophical scandal of knowledge and go about our lives without too many epistemic anxieties. We hold our beliefs and presumptive knowledges more or less confidently, usually depending on how we acquired them (I saw it with my own eyes; I heard it on Fox News; a guy at the office told me) and how broadly and strenuously they seem to be shared or endorsed by various relevant people: experts and authorities, friends and family members, colleagues and associates. And we examine our convictions more or less closely, explain them more or less extensively, and defend them more or less vigorously, usually depending on what seems to be at stake for ourselves and/or other people and what resources are available for reassuring ourselves or making our beliefs credible to others (look, it’s right here on the page; add up the figures yourself; I happen to be a heart specialist).

Q9. “. . . we cannot catch a glimpse of things-in-themselves around the corner of our own eyes; we cannot form an idea of reality that floats above the processes of our conceiving it . . .” Which one of the following statements best reflects the argument being made in this sentence?

  1. Our knowledge of reality floats above our subjective perception of it
  2. If the reality of things is independent of our eyesight, logically we cannot perceive our
  3. If the reality of things is independent of our perception, logically we cannot perceive that
  4. Our knowledge of reality cannot be merged with our process of conceiving

Sol: ‘we cannot form an idea of reality that floats above the processes of our conceiving it’ – The argument being made here is that if reality is independent of our perceptions, then it is clearly out of our scope of understanding, as it exists outside our ability to conceive or perceive it. Hence, option C is the right choice.

Q10. The author of the passage is most likely to support which one of the following statements?

  1. For the sceptic, if we think of reality as independent of our perceptions, ideas or descriptions, we should aim to know that reality independently too
  2. The scandal of philosophy is that we might not know anything at all about reality if we think of reality as independent of our perceptions, ideas or descriptions
  3. The actions taken on the basis of presumed knowledge are rational and justifiable if we are confident that that knowledge is widely held
  4. The confidence with which we maintain something to be true is usually independent of the source of the alleged

Sol: The main idea of the 2nd paragraph is summed up in Option B. Hence, the author is most likely to support B.

Option D is the opposite of what has been said in the passage.

According to the passage, the sceptic questions our ability to know ‘reality’ defined as things-as-they- are-in-themselves, independent of our perceptions, ideas or descriptions because ‘it floats above the processes of our conceiving it‘. Option A states that the sceptic would advocate knowing reality independently which is not correct.

According to the passage, unless we distinguish knowledge from opinion, wishful thinking or delusion, the actions we take on the basis of presumed knowledge will be irrational and unjustifiable. Hence, Option C is incorrect.

 

 

Q11. According to the last paragraph of the passage, “We hold our beliefs and presumptive knowledges more or less confidently, usually depending on” something. Which one of the following most broadly captures what we depend on?

  1. How much of a stake we have in them; what resources there are to support
  2. Remaining outside the academy; ignoring epistemic anxieties
  3. How we come to hold them; how widely they are held in our social
  4. All of the options listed

 

Sol: ‘We hold our beliefs and presumptive knowledges more or less confidently, usually depending on how we acquired them (I saw it with my own eyes; I heard it on Fox News; a guy at the office told me)’

i.e. How we come to hold them and

‘how broadly and strenuously they seem to be shared or endorsed by various relevant people: experts and authorities, friends and family members, colleagues and associates.’ i.e., how widely they are held in our social circles.

Hence, option C.

Q12. The author discusses all of the following arguments in the passage, EXCEPT:

  1. if we cannot distinguish knowledge from opinion or delusion, we will not be able to justify our
  2. sceptics believe that we can never fully know anything, if by “knowing” we mean knowledge of a reality that is independent of the
  3. philosophers maintain that the scandal of philosophy should be of concern to
  4. the best way to deal with scepticism about the veracity of knowledge is to ignore

 

Sol: The author hasn’t said that ignorance is the BEST WAY of dealing with scepticism about the veracity of knowledge; it is the MOST COMMON WAY.

So, option D will be our answer.

 

The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

 I have elaborated a framework for analyzing the contradictory pulls on Indian nationalist ideology in its struggle against the dominance of colonialism and the resolution it offered to those contradictions.

Briefly, this resolution was built around a separation of the domain of culture into two spheres—the material and the spiritual. It was in the material sphere that the claims of Western civilization were the most powerful. Science, technology, rational forms of economic organization, modern methods of statecraft—these had given the European countries the strength to subjugate the non-European people. To overcome this domination, the colonized people had to learn those superior techniques of organizing material life and incorporate them within their own cultures. But this could not mean the imitation of the West in every aspect of life, for then the very distinction between the West and the East would vanish—the self-identity of national culture would itself be threatened.

The discourse of nationalism shows that the material/spiritual distinction was condensed into an analogous, but ideologically far more powerful, dichotomy: that between the outer and the inner. Applying the inner/outer distinction to the matter of concrete day-to-day living separates the social space into ghar and bāhir, the home and the world. The world is the external, the domain of the material; the home represents one’s inner spiritual self, one’s true identity. The world is a treacherous terrain of the pursuit of material interests, where practical considerations reign supreme. It is also typically the domain of the male. The home in its essence must remain unaffected by the profane activities of the material world—and woman is its representation. And so one gets an identification of social roles by gender to correspond with the separation of the social space into ghar and bāhir.

The colonial situation, and the ideological response of nationalism to the critique of Indian tradition, introduced an entirely new substance to these dichotomies and effected their transformation. The material/spiritual dichotomy, to which the terms world and home corresponded, had acquired a very special significance in the nationalist mind. The world was where the European power had challenged the non-European peoples and, by virtue of its superior material culture, had subjugated them. But, the nationalists asserted, it had failed to colonize the inner, essential, identity of the East which lay in its distinctive, and superior, spiritual culture in the entire phase of the national struggle, the crucial need was to protect, preserve and strengthen the inner core of the national culture, its spiritual essence.

Once we match this new meaning of the home/world dichotomy with the identification of social roles by gender, we get the ideological framework within which nationalism answered the women’s question. It would be a grave error to see in this, as liberals are apt to in their despair at the many marks of social conservatism in nationalist practice, a total rejection of the West. Quite the contrary: the nationalist paradigm in fact supplied an ideological principle of selection.

 

 

Q13. On the basis of the information in the passage, all of the following are true about the spiritual/material dichotomy of Indian nationalism EXCEPT that it:

  1. helped in safeguarding the identity of Indian
  2. constituted the premise of the ghar/bāhir dichotomy
  3. was not as ideologically powerful as the inner/outer
  4. represented a continuation of age-old oppositions in Indian

 

Sol: Nowhere in the passage has the author mentioned option D that the spiritual/material dichotomy was a ‘continuation of age-old oppositions in Indian culture’.

The options B and C are mentioned in 2nd paragraph and option A in 3rd paragraph.

Q14. Which one of the following explains the “contradictory pulls” on Indian nationalism?

  1. Despite its fight against colonial domination, Indian nationalism had to borrow from the coloniser in the material sphere
  2. Despite its spiritual superiority, Indian nationalism had to fight against colonial
  3. Despite its scientific and technological inferiority, Indian nationalism had to fight against colonial
  4. Despite its fight against colonial domination, Indian nationalism had to borrow from the coloniser in the spiritual

 

Sol: ‘To overcome this domination, the colonized people had to learn those superior techniques of organizing material life and incorporate them within their own cultures.’

Hence, option A.

Q15. Which one of the following best describes the liberal perception of Indian nationalism?

  1. Indian nationalist discourses provided an ideological principle of
  2. Indian nationalism’s sophistication resided in its distinction of the material from the spiritual
  3. Indian nationalist discourses reaffirmed traditional gender roles for Indian
  4. Indian nationalism embraced the changes brought about by colonialism in Indian women’s traditional gender

Sol: “Once we match this new meaning of the home/world dichotomy with the identification of social roles by gender, we get the ideological framework within which nationalism answered the women’s question. It would be a grave error to see in this, as liberals are apt to in their despair at the many marks of social conservatism in nationalist practice, a total rejection of the West.”

It means that in the matching of the home/world dichotomy with gender-based social roles, the liberals are likely to see a total rejection of the West by Indian nationalists. Hence, option C follows.

Q16. Which one of the following, if true, would weaken the author’s claims in the passage?

  1. Indian nationalists rejected the cause of English education for women during the colonial
  2. Forces of colonial modernity played an important role in shaping anti-colonial Indian
  3. The Industrial Revolution played a crucial role in shaping the economic prowess of Britain in the eighteenth
  4. The colonial period saw the hybridisation of Indian culture in all realms as it came in contact with British/European

 

Sol: During the national struggle, according to the author, nationalists maintained that European power had ‘failed to colonize the inner, essential, identity of the East which lay in its distinctive, and superior, spiritual culture’. If, as mentioned in option D, the colonial period saw the hybridisation of Indian culture in all realms – if there were no home/world dichotomy on which the author bases his argument then, that would seriously weaken the author’s claims in the passage.

 

Q17. Five jumbled up sentences, related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd one out and key in the number of the sentence as your answer:

 

  1. It has taken on a warm, fuzzy glow in the advertising world, where its potential is being widely discussed, and it is being claimed as the undeniable wave of the
  2. There is little enthusiasm for this in the scientific arena; for them marketing is not a science, and only a handful of studies have been published in scientific
  3. The new, growing field of neuromarketing attempts to reveal the inner workings of consumer behaviour and is an extension of the study of how choices and decisions are made.
  4. Some see neuromarketing as an attempt to make the “art” of advertising into a science, being used by marketing experts to back up their proposals with some form of real
  5. The marketing gurus have already started drawing on psychology in developing tests and theories, and advertising people have borrowed the idea of the focus group from social

 

Sol: Give all the sentences a read. While all other sentences relate to neuromarketing and how it has been received by marketers, advertisers and scientists, sentence 5 is unrelated.

Also, 3412 forms a logical paragraph.

 

Q18. The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4) below, when properly sequenced would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer:

  1. But today there is an epochal challenge to rethink and reconstitute the vision and practice of development as a shared responsibility – a sharing which binds both the agent and the audience, the developed world and the developing, in a bond of shared
  2. We are at a crossroads now in our vision and practice of
  3. This calls for the cultivation of an appropriate ethical mode of being in our lives which enables us to realize this global and planetary situation of shared living and
  4. Half a century ago, development began as a hope for a better human possibility, but in the last fifty years, this hope has lost itself in the dreary desert of various kinds of hegemonic

Sol: 41 forms a logical pair. The vision introduced in 4 is referred to in 1.

Now, 2 should come before these 2 sentences as they are explaining WHY we are at crossroads in our vision and practice of development.

3 concludes the paragraph. Hence, 2413.

Q19. Five jumbled up sentences, related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd one out and key in the number of the sentence as your answer:

  1. The care with which philosophers examine arguments for and against forms of biotechnology makes this an excellent primer on formulating and assessing moral arguments.
  2. Although most people find at least some forms of genetic engineering disquieting, it is not easy to articulate why: what is wrong with re-engineering our nature?
  3. Breakthroughs in genetics present us with the promise that we will soon be able to prevent a host of debilitating diseases, and the predicament that our newfound genetic knowledge may enable us to enhance our genetic
  4. To grapple with the ethics of enhancement, we need to confront questions that verge on theology, which is why modern philosophers and political theorists tend to shrink from
  5. One argument is that the drive for human perfection through genetics is objectionable as it represents a bid for mastery that fails to appreciate the gifts of human powers and

Sol: 25 form a logical pair. 34 form a logical pair as well.

1 is the odd one out as it talks about a broader discipline – biotechnology. and a different idea.

Q20. The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.

Biologists who publish their research directly to the Web have been labelled as “rogue”, but physicists have been routinely publishing research digitally (“preprints”), prior to submitting in a peer-reviewed journal. Advocates of preprints argue that quick and open dissemination of research speeds up scientific progress and allows for wider access to knowledge. But some journals still don’t accept research previously published as a preprint. Even if the idea of preprints is gaining ground, one of the biggest barriers for biologists is how they would be viewed by members of their conservative research community.

  1. Preprints of research are frowned on by some scientific fields as they do not undergo a rigorous reviewing process but are accepted among biologists as a quick way to disseminate information
  2. While digital publication of research is gaining popularity in many scientific disciplines, almost all peer-reviewed journals are reluctant to accept papers that have been published
  3. Compared to biologists, physicists are less conservative in their acceptance of digital pre- publication of research papers, which allows for faster dissemination of
  4. One of the advantages of digital preprints of research is they hasten the dissemination process, but these are not accepted by most scientific

 

Sol: The paragraph shows a contrast in terms of preprints between biologists and physicists. The last line of the paragraph tells us clearly that the physicist community is much less conservative than biologists.

Hence, option C is correct.

Q21. The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) below, when properly sequenced would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer:

  1. Look forward a few decades to an invention which can end the energy crisis, change the global economy and curb climate change at a stroke: commercial fusion
  2. To gain meaningful insights, logic has to be accompanied by asking probing questions of nature through controlled tests, precise observations and clever
  3. The greatest of all inventions is the über-invention that has provided the insights on which others depend: the modern scientific
  4. This invention is inconceivable without the scientific method; it will rest on the application of a diverse range of scientific insights, such as the process transforming hydrogen into helium to release huge amounts of

Sol: 14 forms a logical pair. ‘this invention’ in 4 refers to the one mentioned in 1. 2 should precede 1 as 1 elaborates on 2 by giving an example.

  • will be the starting sentence. Hence, 3214.

Q22. The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.

The unlikely alliance of the incumbent industrialist and the distressed unemployed worker is especially powerful amid the debris of corporate bankruptcies and layoffs. In an economic downturn, the capitalist is more likely to focus on costs of the competition emanating from free markets than on the opportunities they create. And the unemployed worker will find many others in a similar condition and with anxieties similar to his, which will make it easier for them to organize together. Using the cover and the political organization provided by the distressed, the capitalist captures the political agenda.

  1. An unlikely alliance of the industrialist and the unemployed happens during an economic downturn in which they come together to unite politically and capture the political
  2. The purpose of an unlikely alliance between the industrialist and the unemployed during an economic downturn is to stifle competition in free
  3. In an economic downturn, the capitalists use the anxieties of the unemployed and their political organisation to set the political agenda to suit their economic
  4. An economic downturn creates competition because of which the capitalists capture the political agenda created by the political organisation provided by the

Sol: Option C clearly sums up the main idea of the passage – capitalist using the anxiety of the unemployed in an economic downturn for self-interest.

Q23. The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) below, when properly sequenced would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer:

  1. The US has long maintained that the Northwest Passage is an international strait through which its commercial and military vessels have the right to pass without seeking Canada’s
  2. Canada, which officially acquired the group of islands forming the Northwest Passage in 1880, claims sovereignty over all the shipping routes through the
  3. The dispute could be transitory, however, as scientists speculate that the entire Arctic Ocean will soon be ice-free in summer, so ship owners will not have to ask for permission to sail through any of the Northwest Passage
  4. The US and Canada have never legally settled the question of access through the Passage, but have an agreement whereby the US needs to seek Canada’s consent for any transit.

Sol: 2 introduces the group of Islands forming the northwest passage. 1 then gives US’ stand over it.

  • follows and 3 concludes on the note that the dispute could ve Hence, 2143.

 

Q24. The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.

Creativity is now viewed as the engine of economic progress. Various organizations are devoted to its study and promotion; there are encyclopaedias and handbooks surveying creativity research. But this proliferating success has tended to erode creativity’s stable identity: it has become so invested with value that it has become impossible to police its meaning and the practices that supposedly identify and encourage it. Many people and organizations committed to producing original thoughts now feel that undue obsession with the idea of creativity gets in the way of real creativity.

  1. The industry that has built up around researching what comprises and encourages creativity has destroyed the creative process
  2. The value assigned to creativity today has assumed such proportions that the concept itself has lost its real meaning and this is hampering the engendering of real
  3. Creativity has proliferated to the extent that is no longer a stable process, and its mutating identity has stifled the creative
  4. The obsession with original thought, how it can be promoted and researched, has made it impossible for people and organizations to define the concept anymore.

Sol: Creativity not viewed as engine of economic progress.

Its study, research has eroded stable Identity – impossible to police its meaning.

Many feel that undue obsession with the idea of creativity gets in the way of real creativity. Option B sums up all the points well.

 

 

DILR

 

Read the following set and answer the questions that follow: 

Ten objects o1, o2, …, o10 were distributed among Amar, Barat, Charles, Disha, and Elise. Each item went to exactly one person. Each person got exactly two of the items, and this pair of objects is called her/his bundle.

The following table shows how each person values each object.

The value of any bundle by a person is the sum of that person’s values of the objects in that bundle. A person X envies another person Y if X values Y’s bundle more than X’s own bundle.

For example, hypothetically suppose Amar’s bundle consists of o1 and o2, and Barat’s bundle consists of o3 and o4. Then Amar values his own bundle at 4 + 9 = 13 and Barat’s bundle at 9 + 3 =

  1. Hence Amar does not envy On the other hand, Barat values his own bundle at 7 + 5 = 12 and Amar’s bundle at 5 + 9 = 14. Hence Barat envies Amar.

The following facts are known about the actual distribution of the objects among the five people.

  1. If someone’s value for an object is 10, then she/he received that
  2. Objects o1, o2, and o3 were given to three different
  3. Objects o1 and o8 were given to different
  4. Three people value their own bundles at 16. No one values her/his own bundle at a number higher than
  5. Disha values her own bundle at an odd All others value their own bundles at an even number.
  6. Some people who value their own bundles less than 16 envy some other people who value their own bundle at No one else envies others

Q25. What BEST can be said about object o8?

  1. o8 was given to Amar, Charles, or Disha
  2. o8 was given to Charles
  3. o8 was given to Charles or Disha
  4. o8 was given to Disha

Sol: From the above given data and conditions, we can from a cumulative table as shown below.

Last column shows the objects A,B,C,D,E hold.

Now, we can see that o8 was given to Charles. Hence Option B is correct.

Q26. Who among the following envies someone else?

  1. Charles
  2. Amar
  3. Barat
  4. Elise

Sol: From the table, we can say that Amar Envies Barat. Hence, answer is Option B, Amar.

Q27. What is Amar’s value for his own bundle?

  1. 10
  2. 11
  3. 12
  4. 15

Sol: Amar’s value for his own bundle is 9 + 3 = 12.

Q28. Object o4 was given to

  1. Disha
  2. Barat
  3. Charles
  4. Elise

Sol: From the table, we can see that o4 was given to Disha. Hence Option A is correct.

Q29. Object o5 was given to

  1. Disha
  2. Amar
  3. Charles
  4. Elise

Sol: We can see that o5 was given to Elise. Hence Option D is correct.

Q30. What BEST can be said about the distribution of object o1?

  1. o1 was given to Charles or Disha
  2. o1 was given to Charles, Disha, or Elise
  3. o1 was given to Disha
  4. o1 was given to Charles

Sol:

From the table, o1 was given to Disha. Hence Option C is correct.

 

Read the following set and answer the questions that follow:

 The different bars in the diagram above provide information about different orders in various categories (Art, Binders, ….) that were booked in the first two weeks of September of a store for one client. The colour and pattern of a bar denotes the ship mode (First Class / Second Class / Standard Class). The left end point of a bar indicates the booking day of the order, while the right end point indicates the dispatch day of the order. The difference between the dispatch day and the booking day (measured in terms of the number of days) is called the processing time of the order. For the same category, an order is considered for booking only after the previous order of the same category is dispatched. No two consecutive orders of the same category had identical ship mode during this period.

For example, there were only two orders in the furnishing category during this period. The first one was shipped in the Second Class. It was booked on Sep 1 and dispatched on Sep 5. The second order was shipped in the Standard class. It was booked on Sep 5 (although the order might have been placed before that) and dispatched on Sep 12. So, the processing times were 4 and 7 days respectively for these orders.

Q31. How many days between Sep 1 and Sep 14 (both inclusive) had no booking from this client considering all the above categories?

Sol: This is an observation and counting based set.

We can see that on below mentioned dates, there was at least 1 order booked in any of the given categories.

Date: 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,13.

On the remaining dates, there were no orders booked. Those are 8,9,10,11,12,14. Hence the answer is 6.

 

Q32. What was the average processing time of all orders in the categories which had only one type of ship mode?

Sol: There were only 2 categories, where only one type of ship mode was present. Those were Accessories and envelopes.

Accessories – Sept 1 to Sept 19 – 18 Days of processing time Envelopes – Sept 3 to Sept 7 – 4 Days of Processing time.

Hence, average time is (18 + 4) / 2 = 11 days

Q33. The sequence of categories — Art, Binders, Paper and Phones — in decreasing order of average processing time of their orders in this period is:

  1. Phones, Art, Binders, Paper
  2. Phones, Binders, Art, Paper
  3. Art, Binders, Paper, Phones
  4. Paper, Binders, Art, Phones

Sol: Average processing time of Art is = 20 / 5 = 4 days Average processing time of Binders is = 15 / 4 = 3.75 days Average processing time of Paper is = 10 / 3 = 3.33 days Average processing time of Phones is = 15 / 3 = 5 days Hence, decreasing order is Phones, Art, Binders and Paper.

Q34. Approximately what percentage of orders had a processing time of one day during the period Sep 1 to Sep 22 (both dates inclusive)?

  1. 22%
  2. 16%
  3. 25%
  4. 20%

Sol: Total orders during the period = 35 Orders with 1 day processing time = 7 Ans = (7/35)*100 = 20 %

 

Read the following set and answer the questions that follow:

 The game of Chango is a game where two people play against each other; one of them wins and the other loses, i.e., there are no drawn Chango games. 12 players participated in a Chango championship. They were divided into four groups: Group A consisted of Aruna, Azul, and Arif; Group B consisted of Brinda, Brij, and Biju; Group C consisted of Chitra, Chetan, and Chhavi; and Group D consisted of Dipen, Donna, and Deb.

Players within each group had a distinct rank going into the championship. The players have NOT been listed necessarily according to their ranks. In the group stage of the game, the second and third ranked players play against each other, and the winner of that game plays against the first ranked player of the group. The winner of this second game is considered as the winner of the group and enters a semi-final.

The winners from Groups A and B play against each other in one semi-final, while the winners from Groups C and D play against each other in the other semi-final. The winners of the two semi-finals play against each other in the final to decide the winner of the championship.

It is known that:

  1. Chitra did not win the
  2. Aruna did not play against Brij did not play against Brinda.
  3. Aruna, Biju, Chitra, and Dipen played three games each, Azul and Chetan played two games each, and the remaining players played one game

Q35. Who among the following was DEFINITELY NOT ranked first in his/her group?

  1. Aruna
  2. Chitra
  3. Brij
  4. Dipen

Sol: For Group A

Aruna played 3 games, this confirms she will qualify for the semi final Aruna did not play against Arif

So, the matches will be

1st match between Azul and Arif = Azul won

And 2nd match between Aruna and Azul = Aruna won and qualified for Semi final For Group B

Brij did not play against Brinda And Biju played 3 games

So, Biju will qualify for Semi final So, the matches will be

Brij – Biju = Biju won Biju – Brinda = Biju won

And Biju qualified for Semi final For Group C

Chitra played 3 games

And Chetan played 2 games So, the matches possible are Chavvi – Chetan – Chetan won Chetan – Chitra – Chitra won

And Chira qualified for Semi-final For Group D

Dipen played 3 matches, while the remaining two played 1 game each Dipen – Donna – Dipen won

Dipen – Deb – Dipen won Dipen qualified for Semi-Final

All of the 1st three have played only one match While Dipen has played 2 matches

So, answer is option D

Q36. Which of the following pairs must have played against each other in the championship?

  1. Donna, Chetan
  2. Deb, Donna
  3. Azul, Biju
  4. Chitra, Dipen

Sol: Group A consisted of Aruna, Azul, and Arif; Group B consisted of Brinda, Brij, and Biju; Group C consisted of Chitra, Chetan, and Chhavi; and Group D consisted of Dipen, Donna, and Deb.

We know that players ranked 2nd and 3rd in a group will play against each other and the winner among them will play against the 1st ranked player and the winner among them will qualify for the final.

For Group A

Aruna played 3 games, this confirms she will qualify for the semi final Aruna did not play against Arif

So, the matches will be

1st match between Azul and Arif = Azul won

And 2nd match between Aruna and Azul = Aruna won and qualified for Semi final For Group B

Brij did not play against Brinda and Biju played 3 games So, Biju will qualify for Semi final

So, the matches will be Brij – Biju = Biju won Biju – Brinda = Biju won

And Biju qualified for Semi final For Group C

Chitra played 3 games and Chetan played 2 games So, the matches possible are

Chavvi – Chetan – Chetan won Chetan – Chitra – Chitra won And Chira qualified for Semi-final For Group D

Dipen played 3 matches, while the remaining two played 1 game each Dipen – Donna – Dipen won

Dipen – Deb – Dipen won Dipen qualified for Semi-Final.

The winners from Groups A and B play against each other in one semi-final, while the winners from Groups C and D play against each other in the other semi-final

So, the matches will be Aruna – Biju

And 1 game for Aruna is remaining So, she will be a finalist

Aruna won Chitra – Dipen

1 game is remaining for Chitra

So, she will be a finalist and for the final match the match will be between Aruna – Chitra

Chitra did not win the championship. So, Aruna was the winner Answer is option D

Q37. Who won the championship?

  1. Brij
  2. Aruna
  3. Chitra
  4. Cannot be determined

Sol: Group A consisted of Aruna, Azul, and Arif; Group B consisted of Brinda, Brij, and Biju; Group C consisted of Chitra, Chetan, and Chhavi; and Group D consisted of Dipen, Donna, and Deb.

 

We know that players ranked 2nd and 3rd in a group will play against each other and the winner among them will play against the 1st ranked player and the winner among them will qualify for the final

For Group A Aruna played 3 games, this confirms she will qualify for the semi final Aruna did not play against Arif

So, the matches will be

1st match between Azul and Arif = Azul won

And 2nd match between Aruna and Azul = Aruna won and qualified for Semi final For Group B

Brij did not play against Brinda and Biju played 3 games So, Biju will qualify for Semi final

So, the matches will be Brij – Biju = Biju won

Biju – Brinda = Biju won and Biju qualified for Semi final For Group C

Chitra played 3 games and Chetan played 2 games So, the matches possible are

Chavvi – Chetan – Chetan won Chetan – Chitra – Chitra won And Chira qualified for Semi-final For Group D

Dipen played 3 matches, while the remaining two played 1 game each Dipen – Donna – Dipen won

Dipen – Deb – Dipen won Dipen qualified for Semi-Final

 

The winners from Groups A and B play against each other in one semi-final, while the winners from Groups C and D play against each other in the other semi-final

So, the matches will be Aruna – Biju

And 1 game for Aruna is remaining So, she will be a finalist

Aruna won Chitra – Dipen

1 game is remaining for Chitra So, she will be a finalist

And for the final match the match will be between Aruna – Chitra

Chitra did not win the championship. So, Aruna was the winner

Hence, option B

Q38. Who among the following did NOT play against Chitra in the championship?

  1. Dipen
  2. Biju
  3. Aruna
  4. Chetan

Sol: Group A consisted of Aruna, Azul, and Arif; Group B consisted of Brinda, Brij, and Biju; Group C consisted of Chitra, Chetan, and Chhavi; and Group D consisted of Dipen, Donna, and Deb.

We know that players ranked 2nd and 3rd in a group will play against each other and the winner among them will play against the 1st ranked player and the winner among them will qualify for the final

For Group A

Aruna played 3 games, this confirms she will qualify for the semi final Aruna did not play against Arif

So, the matches will be

1st match between Azul and Arif = Azul won

And 2nd match between Aruna and Azul = Aruna won and qualified for Semi final For Group B

Brij did not play against Brinda And Biju played 3 games

So, Biju will qualify for Semi final So, the matches will be

Brij – Biju = Biju won Biju – Brinda = Biju won

And Biju qualified for Semi final For Group C

Chitra played 3 games

And Chetan played 2 games So, the matches possible are Chavvi – Chetan – Chetan won Chetan – Chitra – Chitra won

And Chira qualified for Semi-final For Group D

Dipen played 3 matches, while the remaining two played 1 game each Dipen – Donna – Dipen won

Dipen – Deb – Dipen won Dipen qualified for Semi-Final

The winners from Groups A and B play against each other in one semi-final, while the winners from Groups C and D play against each other in the other semi-final

So, the matches will be Aruna – Biju

And 1 game for Aruna is remaining So, she will be a finalist

Aruna won Chitra – Dipen

1 game is remaining for Chitra So, she will be a finalist

And for the final match the match will be between Aruna – Chitra

Chitra did not win the championship. So, Aruna was the winner.

Answer is option B.

 

Read the following set and answer the questions that follow:

 Ravi works in an online food-delivery company. After each delivery, customers rate Ravi on each of four parameters – Behaviour, Packaging, Hygiene, and Timeliness, on a scale from 1 to 9. If the total of the four rating points is 25 or more, then Ravi gets a bonus of ₹20 for that delivery. Additionally, a customer may or may not give Ravi a tip. If the customer gives a tip, it is either ₹30 or ₹50.One day, Ravi made four deliveries – one to each of Atal, Bihari, Chirag and Deepak, and received a total of ₹120 in bonus and tips. He did not get both a bonus and a tip from the same customer.

The following additional facts are also known.

  1. In Timeliness, Ravi received a total of 21 points, and three of the customers gave him the same rating points in this Atal gave higher rating points than Bihari and Chirag in this parameter.
  2. Ravi received distinct rating points in Packaging from the four customers adding up to 29 Similarly, Ravi received distinct rating points in Hygiene from the four customers adding up to 26 points.
  3. Chirag gave the same rating points for Packaging and
  4. Among the four customers, Bihari gave the highest rating points in Packaging, and Chirag gave the highest rating points in
  5. Everyone rated Ravi between 5 and 7 in Behaviour. Unique maximum and minimum ratings in this parameter were given by Atal and Deepak
  6. If the customers are ranked based on ratings given by them in individual parameters, then Atal’s rank based on Packaging is the same as that based on Hygiene. This is also true for

 

Q39. What was the minimum rating that Ravi received from any customer in any parameter?

Sol: From the above shared data, we can tabulate the Rating for different delivery persons.

Ravi received min 5 rating

Q40. The COMPLETE list of customers who gave the maximum total rating points to Ravi is

  1. Atal and Bihari
  2. Atal
  3. Bihari
  4. Bihari and Chirag

Sol: From the table, Bihari and Chirag both gave 27.

 

Q41. What rating did Atal give on Timeliness?

Sol: From the table, answer is 6

 

Q42. What BEST can be concluded about the tip amount given by Deepak?

  1. Either ₹0 or ₹30 or ₹50
  2. ₹50
  3. ₹30
  4. Either ₹30 or ₹50

Sol:

From the table, the answer is option D.

 

Q43. In which parameter did Atal give the maximum rating points to Ravi?

  1. Packaging
  2. Timeliness
  3. Behaviour
  4. Hygiene

Sol: From the table, answer is option C.

 

Q44. What rating did Deepak give on Packaging?

Sol: From the table, answer is 7.

 

QA

 Q45. In a football tournament, a player has played a certain number of matches and 10 more matches are to be played. If he scores a total of one goal over the next 10 matches, his overall average will be 0.15 goals per match. On the other hand, if he scores a total of two goals over the next 10 matches, his overall average will be 0.2 goals per match. The number of matches he has played is

Sol:

 

Q46. The number of ways of distributing 15 identical balloons, 6 identical pencils and 3 identical erasers among 3 children, such that each child gets at least four balloons and one pencil, is

  1. 1200
  2. 800
  3. 1000
  4. 900

Sol: 15b, 6p, 3e => 3 children Each child to get at least 4b, 1p So, first give away 4b, 1p to each of the 3 children.

Remaining => 3b, 3p, 3e

Arranging the balloons in all possible combinations,

(3,0,0) => 3 ways, (2,1,0) => 3C2 = 6 ways, (1,1,1) => 1 way

Total = 10 ways for balloons

Similarly, 10 ways each for erasers and pencils. Total = 10x10x10 = 1000

 

Q47.

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 1
  4. 8

Sol:

 

 

Q48.

  1. 8
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 4

Sol:

 

Q49. From a container filled with milk, 9 litres of milk are drawn and replaced with water. Next, from the same container, 9 litres are drawn and again replaced with water. If the volumes of milk and water in the container are now in the ratio of 16 : 9, then the capacity of the container, in litres, is

  1. 40
  2. 45
  3. 50
  4. 35

Sol:

Q50. Two trains A and B were moving in opposite directions, their speeds being in the ratio 5 : 3. The front end of A crossed the rear end of B 46 seconds after the front ends of the trains had crossed each other. It took another 69 seconds for the rear ends of the trains to cross each other. The ratio of length of train A to that of train B is

  1. 2:3
  2. 2:1
  3. 5:3
  4. 3:2

Sol:

 

Q51. Anil can paint a house in 60 days while Bimal can paint it in 84 days. Anil starts painting and after 10 days, Bimal and Charu join him. Together, they complete the painting in 14 more days. If they are paid a total of ₹ 21000 for the job, then the share of Charu, in INR, proportionate to the work done by him, is

  1. 9000
  2. 9100
  3. 9200
  4. 9450

Sol:

 

Q52. Anil, Bobby and Chintu jointly invest in a business and agree to share the overall profit in proportion to their investments. Anil’s share of investment is 70%. His share of profit decreases by ₹ 420 if the overall profit goes down from 18% to 15%. Chintu’s share of profit increases by ₹ 80 if the overall profit goes up from 15% to 17%. The amount, in INR, invested by Bobby is

  1. 2400
  2. 2200
  3. 1800
  4. 2000

Sol: Let total investment be 100x 0.7(18x-15x) = 420

=> x = 200

Let Chintu’s share be y% y% of (17x-15x) = 80

=> y = 20%

So, Bobby’s share = 10% 10% of 100x = 10x = 2000

 

Q53. If a rhombus has area 12 sq cm and side length 5 cm, then the length, in cm, of its longer diagonal is

  1. (√37 + √13)/2
  2. (√12 + √13)/2
  3. √37 + √13
  4. √12 + √13

Sol:

 

Q54. Three positive integers x, y and z are in arithmetic progression. If y − x > 2 and xyz = 5(x + y + z), then z − x equals

  1. 8
  2. 10
  3. 14
  4. 12

Sol:

 

Q55. A box has 450 balls, each either white or black, there being as many metallic white balls as metallic black balls. If 40% of the white balls and 50% of the black balls are metallic, then the number of non-metallic balls in the box is

  1. 250
  2. 275
  3. 300
  4. 325

Sol:

 

Q56. Let D and E be points on sides AB and AC, respectively, of a triangle ABC, such that AD : BD = 2 : 1 and AE : CE = 2 : 3. If the area of the triangle ADE is 8 sq cm, then the area of the triangle ABC, in sq cm, is

  1. 20
  2. 22
  3. 32
  4. 30

Sol:

 

Q57. For a 4-digit number, the sum of its digits in the thousands, hundreds and tens places is 14, the sum of its digits in the hundreds, tens and units places is 15, and the tens place digit is 4 more than the units place digit. Then the highest possible 4-digit number satisfying the above conditions is

  1. 2195
  2. 3384
  3. 4195
  4. None of these

Sol: Let the number be a b (c+4) c a+b+c+4 = 14

=> a+b+c = 10…… (1)

b+c+4+c = 15

=> b+2c = 11……… (2)

To get max number, we need to maximize the 1000s digit For that, we will have to minimize b, c in eq 1

Using eq 2, (b+c) min when b=1, c =5 Hence, a = 4

So, the number is 4195.

Q58.

  1. [3/7, 8/9)
  2. [4/9, 8/9)
  3. [3/7, 1/2)
  4. (3/7, 1/2)

Sol:

 

Q59.

  1. 8
  2. 9
  3. 7
  4. 12

Sol:

 

Q60.

  1. 6 < x < 11
  2. 10 < x < 15
  3. 7 < x < 12
  4. 9 < x < 14

Sol:

Q61. The sides AB and CD of a trapezium ABCD are parallel, with AB being the smaller side. P is the midpoint of CD and ABPD is a parallelogram. If the difference between the areas of the parallelogram ABPD and the triangle BPC is 10 sq cm, then the area, in sq cm, of the trapezium ABCD is

  1. 20
  2. 25
  3. 40
  4. 30

Sol:

 

Q62. Raj invested ₹ 10000 in a fund. At the end of first year, he incurred a loss but his balance was more than ₹ 5000. This balance, when invested for another year, grew and the percentage of growth in the second year was five times the percentage of loss in the first year. If the gain of Raj from the initial investment over the two-year period is 35%, then the percentage of loss in the first year is

  1. 15
  2. 5
  3. 10
  4. 70

Sol:

 

Q63.

Sol: If one root is 2+√3, the other will be 2-√3 ax² – c³x + c = 0

Sum of roots = 4 = c³/a

Product of roots = c/a = 1 => c = a

=> a³/a = 4

=> |a| = 2

 

Q64.

  1. 2
  2. -2
  3. 200
  4. -200

Sol:

 

Q65. Two pipes A and B are attached to an empty water tank. Pipe A fills the tank while pipe B drains it. If pipe A is opened at 2 pm and pipe B is opened at 3 pm, then the tank becomes full at 10 pm. Instead, if pipe A is opened at 2 pm and pipe B is opened at 4 pm, then the tank becomes full at 6 pm. If pipe B is not opened at all, then the time, in minutes, taken to fill the tank is

  1. 140
  2. 120
  3. 144
  4. 224

 

Sol:

 

Q66. A person buys tea of three different qualities at ₹ 800, ₹ 500, and ₹ 300 per kg, respectively, and the amounts bought are in the proportion 2 : 3 : 5. She mixes all the tea and sells one-sixth of the mixture at ₹ 700 per kg. The price, in INR per kg, at which she should sell the remaining tea, to make an overall profit of 50%, is

  1. 692
  2. 688
  3. 653
  4. 675

Sol:

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